Why do people keep adding this to their comments? Are they checking notes? Why do they feel the need to point it out if they are? Why are they saying they are if they aren't? It's like me adding "scratching head" to my comment, which I just did, but I have no idea why that adds anything to the conversation.
After taking part in James Hoffmann's decaf tasting project I'd like to have another go to see if I get better results. Also I've recently got a fancy temperature controlled kettle and I'd like to perform some side by side testing of the same bean at different temperatures. I've already found one bean that tastes better at 85°C than 96°C.
So I'd like to get some cupping bowls, and it appears there are two main kinds: ceramic and HDPE. The sellers of HDPE claim it's better than ceramic, but I'd like to know if that's really the case or if it's just self-serving marketing guff.
Just wondering what others use and if there is a preference either way. I'll be tasting at home on the kitchen table so I don't need them to be particularly indestructible. And as per procedure they'll be spending some time cooling off so "heat retention" isn't really that important (I think).
This relates to the BBC article [https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/uk-politics-66596790] which states "the UK should pay $24tn (£18.8tn) for its slavery involvement in 14 countries".
The UK abolished slavery in 1833. That's 190 years ago. So nobody alive today has a slave, and nobody alive today was a slave.
Dividing £18tn by the number of UK taxpayers (31.6m) gives £569 each. Why do I, who have never owned a slave, have to give £569 to someone who similarly is not a slave?
When I've paid my £569 is that the end of the matter forever or will it just open the floodgates of other similar claims?
Isn't this just a country that isn't doing too well, looking at the UK doing reasonably well (cost of living crisis excluded of course), and saying "oh there's this historical thing that affects nobody alive today but you still have to give us trillions of Sterling"?
Shouldn't payment of reparations be limited to those who still benefit from the slave trade today, and paid to those who still suffer from it?
(Please don't flame me. This is NSQ. I genuinely don't know why this is something I should have to pay. I agree slavery is terrible and condemn it in all its forms, and we were right to abolish it.)
